Solved Question Paper For Bank Clerical, P.O, CDS, MAT, S.S.C & Other Competitive Exam

Here is  Solved Question Paper.These Question Paper will help you in CDS,  SSC, MAT, CAT, Bank PO & Clerical exam & also Other Competitive Examination. Well  more  you Practise  more you get, so lets begin the practise.

REASONING-

1.(i) ‘P× Q’ means ‘Q’ is mother of ‘P’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P’ is brother of ‘Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P’ is sister of ‘Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is father of ‘P’.
Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a) R × T ÷ K
(b) M + R × T ÷ K
(c) M – R × T ÷ K
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.
Ans (e)
2. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three.
Ans (b)
3. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
4. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Food : Hunger
(b) Water : Thirst
(c) Air : Suffocation
(d) Talent : Education
(e) Leg : Lame
Ans (d)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Crow
(b) Vulture
(c) Bat
(d) Ostrich
(e) Eagle
Ans (c)
7. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : wealth?
(a) Pity : Kindness
(b) Cruel : Anger
(c) Wise : Education
(d) Pride : Humility
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 29
(b) 85
(c) 147
(d) 125
(e) 53
Ans (d)
9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PERMEABILITY, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give ‘N’ as the answer. If only two such words can be formed give ‘D’ as the answer and if more than two such words can be formed give ‘Z’ as the answer.
(a) M
(b) L
(c) N
(d) D
(e) Z
Ans (e)
10. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5%*K and COME is written as $7K%. How is ‘BOMB’ written in that code?
(a) 5%K5
(b) 57K5
(c) $7K$
(d) 5$%5
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. Find the number of days from 26-1-1996 to 15-5-1996 (both days inclusive)
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 111
(d) 113
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
12. Find the wrong number in the following sequence: 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594
(a) 279
(b) 594
(c) 121
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son. What is the age of the son now?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. How many times between 4 a.m and 4 p.m will the hands of a clock cross?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
15. Five students are sitting in row. T is on right of Z. M is on the left of Z but is on the right of L. T is on the left of Q. Who is sitting first from the left? Here students are represented by the letters T, Z, M, L and Q
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
16. ANGER : 37219 : : NEAR:
(a) 7219
(b) 9132
(c) 1372
(d) 7139
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of ‘W’, considering all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right starting from ‘Z’
(a) R
(b) O
(c) M
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
18. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week was the 1st January 1998?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
19. If “good and bad” is coded as 123, “bad is ugly” is coded as 245 and “good is fair” is coded as 436, then what is the code for “fair”?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Choose the one from the following which is different from others
(a) pen and pencil
(b) tailer and shirt
(c) scooter and cycle
(d) sword and riffle
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If 2 = 1, 3 = 3, 4 = 12, 5 = 60 then 6 = …..?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 720
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
22. What is the next letter of the series, F, I, L, O, …..?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) R
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
23. How many ’5′ s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in the following series
157050700512515050050
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting to his left. He found that the man was his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Father
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. A person traveled 20 km in the northward direction, then traveled 4 km in eastward direction, then traveled 10 km in the northward direction again, then traveled 3 km in the eastward direction and finally traveled 6 km in the southward direction. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 17 km
(b) 37 km
(c) 31 km
(d) 25 km
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

MATHEMATICS-

1.  A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 metres                   B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres                    D. 150 metres

Ans. D

2. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr               B. 50 km/hr

C. 54 km/hr                 D. 55 km/hr

Ans. B

3. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m                B. 225 m
C. 245 m                 D. 250 m

Ans.C
4. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3                   B. 3 : 2

C. 3 : 4                    D. None of these

Ans: B
5. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m            B. 240 m
C. 300 m            D. None of these

Ans. B
6. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
A. 31                  B. 61
C. 71                  D. 91

Ans. D
7.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years         B. 8 years
C. 10 years        D. None of these

Ans.A
8.A father said to his son, “I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth”. If the father’s age is 38 years now, the son’s age five years back was:
A. 14 years          B. 19 years
C. 33 years          D. 38 years

Ans.A
9. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
A. 2014                 B. 2016
C. 2017                  D. 2018

Ans.D
10. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?
A. Monday          B. Wednesday
C. Thursday        D. Sunday

Ans.C
11. January 1, 2007 was Monday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2008?
A. Monday            B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday         D. Sunday

Ans.B
12.A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
A. 145º                B. 150º
C. 155º                D. 160º

Ans. C
13. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80
A. 10                B. 45
C. 54                 D. 75

Ans. C

14.Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
A. 39, 30                    B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33                      D. 43, 34

Ans .C
15.  Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 57%             B. 60%
C. 65%                 D. 90%
Ans. A
16.Two tailers X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 120 percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?
A. Rs. 200              B. Rs. 250

C. Rs. 300              D. None of these
Ans. B

17.If x = 3 + 1 and y = 3 – 1 , then the value of (x2 + y2) is:
3 – 1 3 + 1

A. 10                      B. 13
C. 14                       D. 15
Ans.C

18.What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23 ?
A. 2                      B. 3
C. 18                    D. 21
Ans. A

19A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet surface is:
A. 49 m2                       B. 50 m2
C. 53.5 m2                   D. 55 m2

Ans. A

20.  A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m3) is:
A. 4830       B. 5120

C. 6420       D. 8960
Ans. B

ENGLISH-

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions.

For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports.

This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.

However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.

1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?

(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these

2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening

4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market

(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these

5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these

7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these

8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional

9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk

10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.

11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these

Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge

13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically

15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle

Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.

(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.

(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)

22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)

23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)

24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)

25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)

26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)

27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)

28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)

29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)

30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)

Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required

32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required

33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required

34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required

35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required

36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required

37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required

38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required

39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required

40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required

Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.

Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through

42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing

43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want

44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance

45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work

46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited

47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively

48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past

49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular

50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)

21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error

31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)

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